Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 01.07.2025 05:32
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Stefon Diggs won’t discuss the contents of his bag on the boat - NBC Sports
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Molestiae omnis voluptatem sed assumenda et.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Have you ever followed through being bi-curious?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.